ANSWERS TO CASE ANALYSIS in Clinical Chemistry
Laboratory tests are performed on a 50-year old lean woman during an annual physical check-up. She has no family history of diabetes or any history of elevated glucose levels during pregnancy. Her laboratory results are the following:
FBS = 90 mg/dL
Cholesterol = 140 mg/dL
HDL = 40 mg/dL
TAG = 90 mg/Dl
THE ANSWERS ARE THE CHOICES THAT ARE IN BLACK LETTERS
QUESTIONS:
1. The probable diagnosis of the patient is:
a. myocardial infarction
b. gestational diabetes
c. hypercholesterolemia
d. hyperlipoproteinemia e. NIL – APPARENTLY, THE RESULTS ARE NORMAL
2. What are the risk factors that would indicate a potential risk of this patient developing diabetes?
1. increased cholesterol value
2. increased TAG value
3. decreased HDL value
4. increased LDL value
5. NIL
a. 1 b. 1 & 2 c. 1,2 & 3 d. 1, 2, 3 & 4 e. NIL
3. What would be the proper follow-up tests for this patient?
a. Repeat FBS and OGTT
b. Repeat TAG, Chole, HDL c. Repeat all tests
d. Repeat all tests and OGTT
e. NIL
4. In this specific case, what would be the most significant test for DM?
a. 2 HPPT
b. FBS
c. OGTT
d. RBS
e. NIL
5. Using the Friedewald formula, the LDL value of a patient with the following results is:
TC = 150 mg/dL, TAG = 90 mg/dL, and HDL = 36 mg/dL:a. 96 mg/dL
b. 102.69 mg/dL
c. 375 mg/dL
d. 24 mg/dL
e. NIL
Friedewald formula: Explanation
The Friedewald formula (FF) is an estimation of LDL-c level. It utilizes the following values:
Total Cholesterol (TC), Triglycerides (TG), and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-c)
The FF is:
LDL-c (mg/dL) = TC (mg/dL) − HDL-c (mg/dL) − TG (mg/dL)/5
Example is above:
Substituting the given data, you will get:
LDL-c = (150 - 36) - (90/5)
LDL-c = (150 -36) - 18
LDL-c = 96 mg/dL
6. The reason why the value of glucose is 10-15% lower in whole blood than serum and plasma is:
a. Glycolysis is more predominant in plasma
b. Gluconeogenesis occurs only in serum and plasma c. Red blood cells consume glucose
d. Glucose is contained mostly in serum
e. NIL
7. The value of 110 traditional units of cholesterol in SI units is:
a. 1.10 mmol/L
b. 220 mg/dL
c. 11.0 mmol/L
d. 6.105 mmol/L e. NIL - 110 mg/dl = 2.8446 mmol/l
NOTES:
To convert from mg/dL (Traditional units) to mmol/L (SI units)
For total, HDL, and LDL cholesterol divide mg/dL by 38.67
Example 110 mg/dL to SI units
110 mg/dL/38.67 = 2.8846 mmol/L
For triglycerides divide mg/dL by 88.57
Example 150 mg/dL to SI units
150 mg/dL/88.57 = 1.69357 mmol/L
To convert from mmol/L to mg/dL
For total, HDL, and LDL cholesterol multiply mmol/L by 38.67
Example 2.0 mmol/L to traditional units (mg/dL)
2.0 mmol/L * 38.67 = 77.34 mg/dL
For triglycerides multiply mmol/L by 88.57
Example 3.2 mmol/L to traditional units (mg/dL)
3.2 mmol/L * 88.57 = 283.424 mg/dL
8. The normal value of TP in SI units is:
a. 3.2 – 8.5 g/dL
b. 3.5 – 6.2 g/L c. 32 – 85 g/L OTHER BOOKS SAY IT’S 60 – 80 g/L
d. 3.3 – 5.3 g/dL
e. NIL
9. In protein measurements, Nessler’s reagent is:
a. double iodide of potassium and mercury
b. double ions of mercury and iodine
c. mercury, iodine and potassium
d. bonds between an anion and a cation
e. NIL
10. The following are methods for cholesterol determination, except:
a. Van Handel and Zilversmit
b. Pearson McGavak
c. Schoenheimer and Sperry
d. Sperry and Webs
e. NIL
11. The serum proteins are the following, EXCEPT:
a. albumin
b. globulin c. fibrinogen
d. immunoglobulin e. NIL
12. When testing for OGTT, the following precautions should be observed, EXCEPT:
a. The patient should not be ambulatory
b. The patient should eat only 150 grams of carbohydrates daily for 3 days prior to the test
c. The patient should fast for 8-12 hours
d. Strenuous exercise should be avoided
e. NIL
Wednesday, August 23, 2017
Monday, August 21, 2017
CASE ANALYSIS in Clinical Chemistry
CASE ANALYSIS in Clinical Chemistry
Laboratory tests are performed on a 50-year old lean woman during an annual physical check-up. She has no family history of diabetes or any history of elevated glucose levels during pregnancy. Her laboratory results are the following:
FBS = 90 mg/dL
Cholesterol = 140 mg/dL
HDL = 40 mg/dL
TAG = 90 mg/dL
QUESTIONS:
1. The probable diagnosis of the patient is:
a. myocardial infarction
b. gestational diabetes
c. hypercholesterolemia
d. hyperlipoproteinemia
e. NIL
2. What are the risk factors that would indicate a potential risk of this patient developing diabetes?
1. increased cholesterol value
2. increased TAG value
3. decreased HDL value
4. increased LDL value
5. NIL
a. 1 b. 1 & 2 c. 1,2 & 3 d. 1, 2, 3 & 4 e. NIL
3. What would be the proper follow-up tests for this patient?
a. Repeat FBS and OGTT
b. Repeat TAG, Chole, HDL
c. Repeat all tests
d. Repeat all tests and OGTT
e. NIL
4. In this specific case, what would be the most significant test for DM?
a. 2 HPPT
b. FBS
c. OGTT
d. RBS
e. NIL
5. Using the Friedewald formula, the LDL value of a patient with the following results is:
TC = 150 mg/dL, TAG = 90 mg/dL, and HDL = 36 mg/dL:
a. 96 mg/dL
b. 102.69 mg/dL
c. 375 mg/dL
d. 24 mg/dL
e. NIL
6. The reason why the value of glucose is 10-15% lower in whole blood than serum and plasma is:
a. Glycolysis is more predominant in plasma
b. Gluconeogenesis occurs only in serum and plasma
c. Red blood cells consume glucose
d. Glucose is contained mostly in serum
e. NIL
7. The value of 110 traditional units of cholesterol in SI units is:
a. 1.10 mmol/L
b. 220 mg/dL
c. 11.0 mmol/L
d. 6.105 mmol/L
e. NIL
8. The normal value of TP in SI units is:
a. 3.2 – 8.5 g/dL
b. 3.5 – 6.2 g/L
c. 32 – 85 g/L
d. 3.3 – 5.3 g/dL
e. NIL
9. In protein measurements, Nessler’s reagent is:
a. double iodide of potassium and mercury
b. double ions of mercury and iodine
c. mercury, iodine and potassium
d. bonds between an anion and a cation
e. NIL
10. The following are methods for cholesterol determination, except:
a. Van Handel and Zilversmit
b. Pearson McGavak
c. Schoenheimer and Sperry
d. Sperry and Webs
e. NIL
11. The serum proteins are the following, EXCEPT:
a. albumin
b. globulin
c. fibrinogen
d. immunoglobulin
e. NIL
12. When testing for OGTT, the following precautions should be observed, EXCEPT:
a. The patient should not be ambulatory
b. The patient should eat only 150 grams of carbohydrates daily for 3 days prior to the test
c. The patient should fast for 8-12 hours
d. Strenuous exercise should be avoided
e. NIL
ANSWERS CAN BE READ HERE.
Laboratory tests are performed on a 50-year old lean woman during an annual physical check-up. She has no family history of diabetes or any history of elevated glucose levels during pregnancy. Her laboratory results are the following:
FBS = 90 mg/dL
Cholesterol = 140 mg/dL
HDL = 40 mg/dL
TAG = 90 mg/dL
QUESTIONS:
1. The probable diagnosis of the patient is:
a. myocardial infarction
b. gestational diabetes
c. hypercholesterolemia
d. hyperlipoproteinemia
e. NIL
2. What are the risk factors that would indicate a potential risk of this patient developing diabetes?
1. increased cholesterol value
2. increased TAG value
3. decreased HDL value
4. increased LDL value
5. NIL
a. 1 b. 1 & 2 c. 1,2 & 3 d. 1, 2, 3 & 4 e. NIL
3. What would be the proper follow-up tests for this patient?
a. Repeat FBS and OGTT
b. Repeat TAG, Chole, HDL
c. Repeat all tests
d. Repeat all tests and OGTT
e. NIL
4. In this specific case, what would be the most significant test for DM?
a. 2 HPPT
b. FBS
c. OGTT
d. RBS
e. NIL
5. Using the Friedewald formula, the LDL value of a patient with the following results is:
TC = 150 mg/dL, TAG = 90 mg/dL, and HDL = 36 mg/dL:
a. 96 mg/dL
b. 102.69 mg/dL
c. 375 mg/dL
d. 24 mg/dL
e. NIL
6. The reason why the value of glucose is 10-15% lower in whole blood than serum and plasma is:
a. Glycolysis is more predominant in plasma
b. Gluconeogenesis occurs only in serum and plasma
c. Red blood cells consume glucose
d. Glucose is contained mostly in serum
e. NIL
7. The value of 110 traditional units of cholesterol in SI units is:
a. 1.10 mmol/L
b. 220 mg/dL
c. 11.0 mmol/L
d. 6.105 mmol/L
e. NIL
8. The normal value of TP in SI units is:
a. 3.2 – 8.5 g/dL
b. 3.5 – 6.2 g/L
c. 32 – 85 g/L
d. 3.3 – 5.3 g/dL
e. NIL
9. In protein measurements, Nessler’s reagent is:
a. double iodide of potassium and mercury
b. double ions of mercury and iodine
c. mercury, iodine and potassium
d. bonds between an anion and a cation
e. NIL
10. The following are methods for cholesterol determination, except:
a. Van Handel and Zilversmit
b. Pearson McGavak
c. Schoenheimer and Sperry
d. Sperry and Webs
e. NIL
11. The serum proteins are the following, EXCEPT:
a. albumin
b. globulin
c. fibrinogen
d. immunoglobulin
e. NIL
12. When testing for OGTT, the following precautions should be observed, EXCEPT:
a. The patient should not be ambulatory
b. The patient should eat only 150 grams of carbohydrates daily for 3 days prior to the test
c. The patient should fast for 8-12 hours
d. Strenuous exercise should be avoided
e. NIL
ANSWERS CAN BE READ HERE.
Sunday, August 20, 2017
Answers to Review Questions On Instrumentation
ANSWERS to REVIEW QUESTIONS ON INSTRUMENTATION
1. d - flame photometry
2. a - quartz
3. c - particles
4. a - molarity
5. c - dilution
6. e - not in the list (you should multiple the dilutions with the original concentration
7. d - all of the above
8. c - obviate the need for matched detectors
9. a- the color of the reagents
10. c - fluorometer
11. c - fluoroscence is directly proportional to temperature
12. b - heparin
13. d - fluoride
14. b - antecubital fossa
15. b - antecubital fossa
16. b - 20 to 22
17. a - Beer Lamvert's Law
18. a - burner assembly
19. c - spectrophotometry
20. a - light given off by excited atoms
21. a - absorbance
22. d - freezing point depression
23. b - fluorescence
24. a - hollow cathode lamp
25. c - charged particles
26. e - read out errors of cuvette and sprectro
27. a - didymium and lithium
28. a - aspirator, atomizer, flame
29. d-volumetric flask
30. b - solid and liquid preparations
31. d - liters
32. e - not in the list (NIL)
33. a - negative to positive
34. b - the inviolvement of solvent and solute
35. e - not in the list
36. b - the substance to be measured should be hydrated
1. d - flame photometry
2. a - quartz
3. c - particles
4. a - molarity
5. c - dilution
6. e - not in the list (you should multiple the dilutions with the original concentration
7. d - all of the above
8. c - obviate the need for matched detectors
9. a- the color of the reagents
10. c - fluorometer
11. c - fluoroscence is directly proportional to temperature
12. b - heparin
13. d - fluoride
14. b - antecubital fossa
15. b - antecubital fossa
16. b - 20 to 22
17. a - Beer Lamvert's Law
18. a - burner assembly
19. c - spectrophotometry
20. a - light given off by excited atoms
21. a - absorbance
22. d - freezing point depression
23. b - fluorescence
24. a - hollow cathode lamp
25. c - charged particles
26. e - read out errors of cuvette and sprectro
27. a - didymium and lithium
28. a - aspirator, atomizer, flame
29. d-volumetric flask
30. b - solid and liquid preparations
31. d - liters
32. e - not in the list (NIL)
33. a - negative to positive
34. b - the inviolvement of solvent and solute
35. e - not in the list
36. b - the substance to be measured should be hydrated
Review Questions on Instrumentation and Venipuncture for Clinical Chemistry
1. Particulate formation is a problem in analysis of:
a. ultraviolet spectrophotometry d. flame photometry
b. fluorescence e. NIL
c. atomic absorption
2. For photometric measurements below 320 mu, the cuvette must be:
a. quartz d. NaCl
b. tungsten glass e. Pyrex glass
c. borosilicate glass
3. Nephelometry is used to measure:
a. ultraviolet absorbing material
b. infrared absorbing material
c. particles
d. colored solutions
e. NIL
4. The gram-molecular weight per liter of solution is:
a. Molarity c. Normality e. NIL
b. Molality d. Percent
5. It involves the preparation of a weaker solution from a stronger solution:
a. serial dilution c. dilution e. NIL
b. percent d. gravimetry
6. To solve for the dilution of a solution, you have to:
a. multiply all the number of parts of the diluent with the original concentration
b. add the number of parts of the solute and the solvent
c. add all the numerators and denominators
d. add all the volumes and multiply by the original concentration
e. NIL
7. Which of the following formula correctly describes the relationship between absorbance and % T ?
a. A= 2- log % T c. A= - log T
b. A = log 1/T d. all of the above
e. NIL
8. A chopper is used in a dual beam spectrophotometer in order to:
a. reduce the number of moving parts
b. facilitate wavelength scanning
c. obviate the need for matched detectors
d. reduce stray light
e. NIL
9. The reagent blank corrects for absorbance caused by:
a. the color of reagents
b. sample turbidity
c. bilirubin and hemolysis
d. all of the above
e. NIL
10. Which instrument requires a primary and secondary monochromator?
a. flame photometer
b. atomic absorption
c. fluorometer
d. nephelometer
e. NIL
11. All of the following statements about fluorometry are true, except:
a. fluorometry is more sensitive than spectrophotometry
b. both excitation and emission spectra are characteristics of the analyte
c. fluorescence is directly proportional to temperature
d. unsaturated cyclic molecules are often fluorescent
e. NIL
12. The ideal anticoagulant because of its natural presence in the blood:
a. citrate c. oxalate e. NIL
b. heparin d. fluoride
13. The anticoagulant of choice for glucose because it serves as preservative :
Select from the above choices
14. The most common site of venipuncture:
a. wrist veins c. ankle veins e. NIL
b. antecubital fossa d. cubital veins
15. The following are sites of arterial puncture, except:
a. radial c. brachial e. NIL
b. antecubital fossa d. femoral
16. The ideal gauge of needle for venipuncture is:
a. 22- 25 c. 21-23 e. NIL
b. 20-22 d. 18-20
17. It is the law applied to spectrophotometry:
a. Beer-Lambert’s Law c. Kirchoff’s Law
b. Newton’s Law d. Absorptivity Coeffecient
e. NIL
18. The following are basic components of the spectrophotometer, except;
a. burner assembly c. cuvette e. NIL
b. monochomator d. exit slit
19. The more light absorbed, the higher the concentration of analyte in this technique of measuring the amount of light absorbed by a solution:
a. atomic absorption d. fluorometry
b. nephelometry e. NIL
c. spectrophotometry
20. The basis of EFP is the measurement of:
a. light given off by excited atoms
b. light absorbed at wavelength of resonance line by dissociated atoms
c. energy emitted by ultraviolet treated atoms
d. energy emitted by infrared treated atoms
e. NIL
21. 2- log T is a definition of (T= transmission):
a. absorbance d. electron density e. NIL
b. ionic strength e. electrophoretic density
22.In Osmometry, concentration of substance can be measured by:
a. colorimetry d. freezing point depression
b. appropriate filters e. NIL
c. ionized atoms
23.Quenching is a problem in analysis of:
a. ultraviolet spectrophotometry d. flame photometry
b. fluorescence e. NIL
c. atomic absorption
24. For AAS measurements the light source is usually the:
a. hollow cathode lamp d. Tungsten light bulb
b. Deuterium lamp e. NIL
c. halogen lamp
25.Electrophoresis is used to measure :
a. ultraviolet substances e. NIL
b. infrared absorbing materials
c. charged particles
d. colored solutions
26.The water blank corrects for absorbance caused by:
a. the color of reagents e. NIL
b. sample turbidity
c. bilirubin and hemolysis
d. all of the above
27. The internal standards in EFP, are:
a. Didymium and lithium
b. Cesium and lithium
c. Potassium and didymium
d. Cesium and didymium
e. NIL
28. The parts of the burner assembly are the following:
a. Aspirator, atomizer, flame
b. Aspirator, ionizer, flame
c. Atomizer, emitter, flame
d. Atomizer, ionizer, flame
e. NIL
29. The most accurate vessel in volumetric measurements is the:
a. Erlenmeyer flask
b. Graduated cylinder
c. Serological pipette
d. Volumetric flask
e. NIL
30. Volumetric measurements are generally used in:
a. Liquid preparations only
b. Solid and liquid preparations
c. Solid preparations only
d. AIL
e. NIL
31. The unit of volume in volumetric measurements is:
a. Deciliter
b. Micriolter
c. Milliliter
d. Liter
e. NIL
32. In electrophoresis, the basis of separation are the following, EXCEPT:
a. Charges of ions
b. Electrophoretic media
c. Net charge of particles
d. Concentration of ions
e. NIL
33. The movement of ions in electrophoresis is from:
a. Negative to positive
b. Positive to negative
c. Negative to negative
d. Positive to positive
e. NIL
34. The principle of chromatography is:
a. The movement of charged particles in an electric field
b. The involvement the solute and solvent
c. The measurement of emitted light
d. The excitation of ions in solution
e. NIL
35. Chromatography is affected by the following factors, EXCEPT:
a. Density of particles in solution
b. Size of particle
c. Affinity of particles to chromatographic media
d. pH
e. NIL
36. The following precautions are observed in Gravimetry, EXCEPT:
a. The balance should be adjusted to zero
b. The substance to be measured should be hydrated
c. The substance should be uncontaminated
d. The vessels used should be clean and dry
e. NIL
CLICK HERE FOR THE CORRECT ANSWERS
a. ultraviolet spectrophotometry d. flame photometry
b. fluorescence e. NIL
c. atomic absorption
2. For photometric measurements below 320 mu, the cuvette must be:
a. quartz d. NaCl
b. tungsten glass e. Pyrex glass
c. borosilicate glass
3. Nephelometry is used to measure:
a. ultraviolet absorbing material
b. infrared absorbing material
c. particles
d. colored solutions
e. NIL
4. The gram-molecular weight per liter of solution is:
a. Molarity c. Normality e. NIL
b. Molality d. Percent
5. It involves the preparation of a weaker solution from a stronger solution:
a. serial dilution c. dilution e. NIL
b. percent d. gravimetry
6. To solve for the dilution of a solution, you have to:
a. multiply all the number of parts of the diluent with the original concentration
b. add the number of parts of the solute and the solvent
c. add all the numerators and denominators
d. add all the volumes and multiply by the original concentration
e. NIL
7. Which of the following formula correctly describes the relationship between absorbance and % T ?
a. A= 2- log % T c. A= - log T
b. A = log 1/T d. all of the above
e. NIL
8. A chopper is used in a dual beam spectrophotometer in order to:
a. reduce the number of moving parts
b. facilitate wavelength scanning
c. obviate the need for matched detectors
d. reduce stray light
e. NIL
9. The reagent blank corrects for absorbance caused by:
a. the color of reagents
b. sample turbidity
c. bilirubin and hemolysis
d. all of the above
e. NIL
10. Which instrument requires a primary and secondary monochromator?
a. flame photometer
b. atomic absorption
c. fluorometer
d. nephelometer
e. NIL
11. All of the following statements about fluorometry are true, except:
a. fluorometry is more sensitive than spectrophotometry
b. both excitation and emission spectra are characteristics of the analyte
c. fluorescence is directly proportional to temperature
d. unsaturated cyclic molecules are often fluorescent
e. NIL
12. The ideal anticoagulant because of its natural presence in the blood:
a. citrate c. oxalate e. NIL
b. heparin d. fluoride
13. The anticoagulant of choice for glucose because it serves as preservative :
Select from the above choices
14. The most common site of venipuncture:
a. wrist veins c. ankle veins e. NIL
b. antecubital fossa d. cubital veins
15. The following are sites of arterial puncture, except:
a. radial c. brachial e. NIL
b. antecubital fossa d. femoral
16. The ideal gauge of needle for venipuncture is:
a. 22- 25 c. 21-23 e. NIL
b. 20-22 d. 18-20
17. It is the law applied to spectrophotometry:
a. Beer-Lambert’s Law c. Kirchoff’s Law
b. Newton’s Law d. Absorptivity Coeffecient
e. NIL
18. The following are basic components of the spectrophotometer, except;
a. burner assembly c. cuvette e. NIL
b. monochomator d. exit slit
19. The more light absorbed, the higher the concentration of analyte in this technique of measuring the amount of light absorbed by a solution:
a. atomic absorption d. fluorometry
b. nephelometry e. NIL
c. spectrophotometry
20. The basis of EFP is the measurement of:
a. light given off by excited atoms
b. light absorbed at wavelength of resonance line by dissociated atoms
c. energy emitted by ultraviolet treated atoms
d. energy emitted by infrared treated atoms
e. NIL
21. 2- log T is a definition of (T= transmission):
a. absorbance d. electron density e. NIL
b. ionic strength e. electrophoretic density
22.In Osmometry, concentration of substance can be measured by:
a. colorimetry d. freezing point depression
b. appropriate filters e. NIL
c. ionized atoms
23.Quenching is a problem in analysis of:
a. ultraviolet spectrophotometry d. flame photometry
b. fluorescence e. NIL
c. atomic absorption
24. For AAS measurements the light source is usually the:
a. hollow cathode lamp d. Tungsten light bulb
b. Deuterium lamp e. NIL
c. halogen lamp
25.Electrophoresis is used to measure :
a. ultraviolet substances e. NIL
b. infrared absorbing materials
c. charged particles
d. colored solutions
26.The water blank corrects for absorbance caused by:
a. the color of reagents e. NIL
b. sample turbidity
c. bilirubin and hemolysis
d. all of the above
27. The internal standards in EFP, are:
a. Didymium and lithium
b. Cesium and lithium
c. Potassium and didymium
d. Cesium and didymium
e. NIL
28. The parts of the burner assembly are the following:
a. Aspirator, atomizer, flame
b. Aspirator, ionizer, flame
c. Atomizer, emitter, flame
d. Atomizer, ionizer, flame
e. NIL
29. The most accurate vessel in volumetric measurements is the:
a. Erlenmeyer flask
b. Graduated cylinder
c. Serological pipette
d. Volumetric flask
e. NIL
30. Volumetric measurements are generally used in:
a. Liquid preparations only
b. Solid and liquid preparations
c. Solid preparations only
d. AIL
e. NIL
31. The unit of volume in volumetric measurements is:
a. Deciliter
b. Micriolter
c. Milliliter
d. Liter
e. NIL
32. In electrophoresis, the basis of separation are the following, EXCEPT:
a. Charges of ions
b. Electrophoretic media
c. Net charge of particles
d. Concentration of ions
e. NIL
33. The movement of ions in electrophoresis is from:
a. Negative to positive
b. Positive to negative
c. Negative to negative
d. Positive to positive
e. NIL
34. The principle of chromatography is:
a. The movement of charged particles in an electric field
b. The involvement the solute and solvent
c. The measurement of emitted light
d. The excitation of ions in solution
e. NIL
35. Chromatography is affected by the following factors, EXCEPT:
a. Density of particles in solution
b. Size of particle
c. Affinity of particles to chromatographic media
d. pH
e. NIL
36. The following precautions are observed in Gravimetry, EXCEPT:
a. The balance should be adjusted to zero
b. The substance to be measured should be hydrated
c. The substance should be uncontaminated
d. The vessels used should be clean and dry
e. NIL
CLICK HERE FOR THE CORRECT ANSWERS
Saturday, August 19, 2017
Review Questions on Laboratory Mathematics Clinical Chemistry
1. For you to be able to interpret a quality control chart, you must have these number of data:
A. 20 control values C. 20 standard values
B. 10 control values D.10 standard values
E. NIL
2. What is the Normality of a 3.6 M Sulfuric acid solution given the molecular weights?( H=1, S=32, O-16)
a. 1.8 N b. 3.6N c. 4.9 N d. 7.2 N e. NIL
3. .How many grams of HCL is used to prepare 250 ml of a 4.8 solution of HCL? (H-1, Cl-35.5)
a. 36 G b. 36.5 g c. 40 g d. 43.8 g e. NIL
4. What is the Molarity of a 2 .5 N solution of NaOH?
a. 1.50 mol/l c. 3.35 mol/l e. NIL
b. 2.5 mol/l d. 4.5 mol/l
5. The molecular weight of H3 PO4 is:
a. 48 c. 98 e. NIL
b. 58.5 d. 98.1
6. How many grams of NaCl are required to make 1,000 ml. of 0.3 M solution?
a. 36.3 c. 26.32 e. NIL
b. 52.6 d. 53
7. What is the Molar concentration of a 20 grm. Of NaOH diluted to 1 liter of distilled water?
a. 1 M c. 0.5 M e. NIL
b. 2 M d. 1.5 M
8. What is the amount of CaCl2.H2O in grams is needed to prepare 0.4 N solution of
Ca Cl2?
a. 8.8 c. 16 e. NIL
b. 4 d. 32
9. One milligram is equal to:
a. 0.001 grm. c. 0.01 grm. e. NIL
b. 0.0001 grm. d. 0.1 grm.
10. A 10 mgs. % solution contains:
a. 10 mgs of solute/100ml of solution
b. 10 mgs of solute/100 ml of diluent
c. 10 mgs of solute/1000 ml of diluent
d. 10 mgs of solute/1000ml of solution
e. NIL
11. A 2 % solution of 10mg/100ml is diluted 1:100. What is the final concentration?
a. 2 % c. 0.2 % e. NIL
b. 0.02 % d. 0.002 %
ANSWERS WILL BE GIVEN NEXT WEEK.
A. 20 control values C. 20 standard values
B. 10 control values D.10 standard values
E. NIL
2. What is the Normality of a 3.6 M Sulfuric acid solution given the molecular weights?( H=1, S=32, O-16)
a. 1.8 N b. 3.6N c. 4.9 N d. 7.2 N e. NIL
3. .How many grams of HCL is used to prepare 250 ml of a 4.8 solution of HCL? (H-1, Cl-35.5)
a. 36 G b. 36.5 g c. 40 g d. 43.8 g e. NIL
4. What is the Molarity of a 2 .5 N solution of NaOH?
a. 1.50 mol/l c. 3.35 mol/l e. NIL
b. 2.5 mol/l d. 4.5 mol/l
5. The molecular weight of H3 PO4 is:
a. 48 c. 98 e. NIL
b. 58.5 d. 98.1
6. How many grams of NaCl are required to make 1,000 ml. of 0.3 M solution?
a. 36.3 c. 26.32 e. NIL
b. 52.6 d. 53
7. What is the Molar concentration of a 20 grm. Of NaOH diluted to 1 liter of distilled water?
a. 1 M c. 0.5 M e. NIL
b. 2 M d. 1.5 M
8. What is the amount of CaCl2.H2O in grams is needed to prepare 0.4 N solution of
Ca Cl2?
a. 8.8 c. 16 e. NIL
b. 4 d. 32
9. One milligram is equal to:
a. 0.001 grm. c. 0.01 grm. e. NIL
b. 0.0001 grm. d. 0.1 grm.
10. A 10 mgs. % solution contains:
a. 10 mgs of solute/100ml of solution
b. 10 mgs of solute/100 ml of diluent
c. 10 mgs of solute/1000 ml of diluent
d. 10 mgs of solute/1000ml of solution
e. NIL
11. A 2 % solution of 10mg/100ml is diluted 1:100. What is the final concentration?
a. 2 % c. 0.2 % e. NIL
b. 0.02 % d. 0.002 %
ANSWERS WILL BE GIVEN NEXT WEEK.
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