Saturday, November 15, 2008
Tuesday, September 9, 2008
Medical Technology Board Exam Results For September 2008
FOR THE
RESULTS OF THE MEDICAL TECHOLOGY BOARD EXAMS FOR SEPTEMBER 2008, CLICK ON THIS LINK: PRC SITE .
Wednesday, September 3, 2008
GUIDE QUESTIONS - REPORTING
ELECTROPHORESIS
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Select the BEST answer
1. Most common support medium used in electrophoresis:
a. paper
b. starch gel
c. agarose
d. all of the above
2. The samples are separated into different adjacent zones and migrate at the same rate:
a. electrophoresis
b. isotachoporesis
c. iontophoresis
d. none of the above
3. This is a derivative of agar:
a. agarose gel
b. cellulose acetate
d. agaropressin
e. all of the above
4. This medium is thermostable :
a. acrylamide gel
b. agarose gel
c. cellulose acetate
d. all of the above
5. Stain that is used for serum proteins:
a. Ponceau S
b. Oil red O
c. ninhydrin
d. all of the above
6. Used to confirm the presence of antibodies to HIV:
a. western blot tech
b. southern blot tech
c. isoenzyme
d. All of the above
7. Used for pre-natal diagnosis of inborn errors:
a. southern blot
b. immunoelectrophoresis
c. ELISA
d. All of the above
8. Ampholyte molecule is also known as:
a. Zwitterion
b. isoelectric point
c. electrokinetic phenomenon
d. none of the above
9. Cutting the support medium into zones by means of suitable solvents such as basic buffers or weak alkali is:
a. elution
b. densitometry
c. EMIT
d. None of the above
10. What is the pH of the barbital (veronal) buffer?
a. 8.6
b. 9.5
c. 8.7
d. 10
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. A
10.A
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Select the BEST answer
1. Most common support medium used in electrophoresis:
a. paper
b. starch gel
c. agarose
d. all of the above
2. The samples are separated into different adjacent zones and migrate at the same rate:
a. electrophoresis
b. isotachoporesis
c. iontophoresis
d. none of the above
3. This is a derivative of agar:
a. agarose gel
b. cellulose acetate
d. agaropressin
e. all of the above
4. This medium is thermostable :
a. acrylamide gel
b. agarose gel
c. cellulose acetate
d. all of the above
5. Stain that is used for serum proteins:
a. Ponceau S
b. Oil red O
c. ninhydrin
d. all of the above
6. Used to confirm the presence of antibodies to HIV:
a. western blot tech
b. southern blot tech
c. isoenzyme
d. All of the above
7. Used for pre-natal diagnosis of inborn errors:
a. southern blot
b. immunoelectrophoresis
c. ELISA
d. All of the above
8. Ampholyte molecule is also known as:
a. Zwitterion
b. isoelectric point
c. electrokinetic phenomenon
d. none of the above
9. Cutting the support medium into zones by means of suitable solvents such as basic buffers or weak alkali is:
a. elution
b. densitometry
c. EMIT
d. None of the above
10. What is the pH of the barbital (veronal) buffer?
a. 8.6
b. 9.5
c. 8.7
d. 10
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. A
10.A
GUIDE QUESTIONS - REPORTING - EFP
EMISSION FLAME PHOTOMETRY
Modified TRUE or FALSE:
WRITE: A if BOTH A & B statements are correct
B if BOTH A & B statements are incorrect
C if the FIRST statement is TRUE and the SECOND statement FALSE.
D if the FIRST statement is FALSE and the SECOND statement TRUE.
1. This is true of EMISSION FLAME PHOTOMETRY:(EFP)
A. Used in the detection of metal salts, principally Na, K, Cl, Ba, & Zn.
B. The unknown solution is aspirated into the flame.
2. This is true of Direct Method:
A. Simplest arrangement for measuring the intensity of the emitted light.
B. Direct measurement of analyte in unknown solution.
3. This is true of the internal standard for EFP:
A. cesium is the most commonly used standard
B. it requires more elaborate systems
4. True of EFP:
A. A small percentage of the atom is transformed to an excited state permanently
B. it is used in detection of metal salts
Enumeration:
5 - 7. Name 3 (three) reasons why EFP is commonly used:
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
Match Column A with Column B
8, calcium A. yellow
9. potassium B. violet
10. sodium C. red
ANSWERS:
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. less expensive
6. easier to perform
7. faster TAT (turn around time)
8. C
9. B
10. A
Modified TRUE or FALSE:
WRITE: A if BOTH A & B statements are correct
B if BOTH A & B statements are incorrect
C if the FIRST statement is TRUE and the SECOND statement FALSE.
D if the FIRST statement is FALSE and the SECOND statement TRUE.
1. This is true of EMISSION FLAME PHOTOMETRY:(EFP)
A. Used in the detection of metal salts, principally Na, K, Cl, Ba, & Zn.
B. The unknown solution is aspirated into the flame.
2. This is true of Direct Method:
A. Simplest arrangement for measuring the intensity of the emitted light.
B. Direct measurement of analyte in unknown solution.
3. This is true of the internal standard for EFP:
A. cesium is the most commonly used standard
B. it requires more elaborate systems
4. True of EFP:
A. A small percentage of the atom is transformed to an excited state permanently
B. it is used in detection of metal salts
Enumeration:
5 - 7. Name 3 (three) reasons why EFP is commonly used:
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
Match Column A with Column B
8, calcium A. yellow
9. potassium B. violet
10. sodium C. red
ANSWERS:
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. less expensive
6. easier to perform
7. faster TAT (turn around time)
8. C
9. B
10. A
GUIDE QUESTIONS -REPORTING
FLUOROMETRY
1. What type of light is measured in fluorometry?
a. fluorescent light emitted by analyte
b. light blocked by analytes in solution
c. emitted light by analyte
d. none of the above
2. A substance that does not fluoresce could be conjugated with other substances that
fluoresce to measure its concentration. This is termed as:
a. quenching
b. coupling method
c. anistropy
d. none of the above
3. It utilizes diffraction gratings to isolate wavelength of interest:
a. filter fluorometers
b. spectrofluorometers
c. either
d. neither
4. The light source of a fluorometer emits light:
a. of a shorter wavelength
b. of a longer wavelength
c. either
d. neither
5. The loss of energy and fluoresence due to collision caused by higher temperature is called:
a. quenching
b. coupling
c. fluorescence
d. none of the above
6. Fluorometry is how many times sensitive than spectrophotometry?
a. 100
b. 1,000
c. 10,000
d. 10
7. The two types of monochromators in fluorometry are:
a. excitation and emission
b. excitation and absorption
c. absorption and emission
d. emission and flourescence
8. This type of fluorometry that utilizes a secondary perpendicular intensity in polarization:
a. laser scanning
b. anisotropy
c. time resloved fluorometry
d. resonant energy transfer
9. It is the aspect of fluorometry that has been adapted to increase information content in the assay readout.
Select from the choices for no. 8
10. Co-localization of less than 200 nanometers can be determined by light microscopy alone:
a. true
b. false
ANSWERS
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. C
1. What type of light is measured in fluorometry?
a. fluorescent light emitted by analyte
b. light blocked by analytes in solution
c. emitted light by analyte
d. none of the above
2. A substance that does not fluoresce could be conjugated with other substances that
fluoresce to measure its concentration. This is termed as:
a. quenching
b. coupling method
c. anistropy
d. none of the above
3. It utilizes diffraction gratings to isolate wavelength of interest:
a. filter fluorometers
b. spectrofluorometers
c. either
d. neither
4. The light source of a fluorometer emits light:
a. of a shorter wavelength
b. of a longer wavelength
c. either
d. neither
5. The loss of energy and fluoresence due to collision caused by higher temperature is called:
a. quenching
b. coupling
c. fluorescence
d. none of the above
6. Fluorometry is how many times sensitive than spectrophotometry?
a. 100
b. 1,000
c. 10,000
d. 10
7. The two types of monochromators in fluorometry are:
a. excitation and emission
b. excitation and absorption
c. absorption and emission
d. emission and flourescence
8. This type of fluorometry that utilizes a secondary perpendicular intensity in polarization:
a. laser scanning
b. anisotropy
c. time resloved fluorometry
d. resonant energy transfer
9. It is the aspect of fluorometry that has been adapted to increase information content in the assay readout.
Select from the choices for no. 8
10. Co-localization of less than 200 nanometers can be determined by light microscopy alone:
a. true
b. false
ANSWERS
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. C
REPORTING - GUIDE QUESTIONS
ULTRACENTRIFUGATION
1. These are two kinds of ultracentrifuges:
a. preparative and analytical ultracentrifuge
b. post-operative and pre-analytical ultracentrifuge
c. post-analytical and post-operative ultracentrifuge
d. none of the above
2. It is the unit used in ultracentrifugation:
a. Dalton’s unit
b. Svedberg’s unit
c. Newton’s unit
d. None of the above
3. The following are the rotors used in ultracentrifugation , EXCEPT:
a. zonal rotors
b. fixed angle rotors
c. swaying bucket rotors
d. none of the above
4. The following are the instruments used in turbidimetric measurements, EXCEPT:
a. ultracentrifuge
b. colorimeter
c. spectrophotometer
d. none of the above
5. In turbidimetry, the amount of light blocked by a suspension of particles depends not only on the concentration of the analyte but also in:
a. angle
b. size
c. wavelength
d. none of the above
6. It is the measurement of the amount of light scattered from the unknown solution :
a. ultracentrifugation
b. turbidimetry
c. nephelometry
d. none of the above
7. The range of angle used in nephelometry is:
a. 70 oC to 90oC
b. 90 oC to 180 oC
c. 70 oC to 180 oC
d. none of the above
8. It measures the amount of light blocked by particulate matter as light passes through the cuvette:
a. nephelometry
b. turbidimetry
c. ultracentrifugation
d. all of the above
9. Factors affecting nephelometry includes the following intrinsic factors , EXCEPT:
a. wavelength
b. size of the particle
c. incident light source, sample and photodetecting system must be at right angles to
each other
d. None of the above
10. Nephelometric measurements are similar to turbidimetric measurements :
a. true
b. false
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. A
1. These are two kinds of ultracentrifuges:
a. preparative and analytical ultracentrifuge
b. post-operative and pre-analytical ultracentrifuge
c. post-analytical and post-operative ultracentrifuge
d. none of the above
2. It is the unit used in ultracentrifugation:
a. Dalton’s unit
b. Svedberg’s unit
c. Newton’s unit
d. None of the above
3. The following are the rotors used in ultracentrifugation , EXCEPT:
a. zonal rotors
b. fixed angle rotors
c. swaying bucket rotors
d. none of the above
4. The following are the instruments used in turbidimetric measurements, EXCEPT:
a. ultracentrifuge
b. colorimeter
c. spectrophotometer
d. none of the above
5. In turbidimetry, the amount of light blocked by a suspension of particles depends not only on the concentration of the analyte but also in:
a. angle
b. size
c. wavelength
d. none of the above
6. It is the measurement of the amount of light scattered from the unknown solution :
a. ultracentrifugation
b. turbidimetry
c. nephelometry
d. none of the above
7. The range of angle used in nephelometry is:
a. 70 oC to 90oC
b. 90 oC to 180 oC
c. 70 oC to 180 oC
d. none of the above
8. It measures the amount of light blocked by particulate matter as light passes through the cuvette:
a. nephelometry
b. turbidimetry
c. ultracentrifugation
d. all of the above
9. Factors affecting nephelometry includes the following intrinsic factors , EXCEPT:
a. wavelength
b. size of the particle
c. incident light source, sample and photodetecting system must be at right angles to
each other
d. None of the above
10. Nephelometric measurements are similar to turbidimetric measurements :
a. true
b. false
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. A
Monday, September 1, 2008
INTSRUMENTATION: SUMMARY QUESTIONS (REPORTING)
CHROMATOGRAPHY:
1. _______________________ This refers to the group of techniques used to separate complex mistures on the basis of their physical interaction with the mobile and stationary phases.
2. ________________________ It is a measure of the degree of separation of solute bands relative to their bandwidths.
3._________________________ Enumerate two techniques by chromatographic bed shape
4._________________________
5._________________________ Enumerate the three physical state techniques of the mobile phase.
6._________________________
7._________________________
8._________________________ Give the three parameters measured in chromatography.
9._________________________
10.________________________
GRAVIMETRY, TITRIMETRY, VOLUMETRY & OSMOMETY
1. This method determines the number of moles of reagent required to react quantitatively with the substance being determined:
a. gravimetry
b. titrimetry
c. osmometry
d. volumetry
2. In this method the the titrant is introduced continuously and can perform without supervision:
a. manual modes of transmission
b. automated modes of transmission
c. automated modes of transmission
d. semi-automated modes of transmission
3. This is a device in automatic transfer of titrant that are highly reliable and do not require calibration.
a. persitaltic pumps
b. piston burettes
c. suction-stroke piston pumps
d. automatic pumps
4. These are the types of titration based on the formation of a complex between the titrant and the analyte.
a. redox titration
b. complexometric titration
c. acid base titration
d. ion titration
5. Method of analysis that has the potential for a precision of up to 0.1 %
a. gravimetry
b. volumetry
c. osmometry
d. nanometry
6. Most common method used in osmometry method of analysis
a. vapor pressure
b. freezing point deression
c. membrane osmometry
d. volumetric presure
7. It is the most accurate macro - quantitative method of anaylsis
a. volumetry
b. gravimetry
c. osmometry
d. titrimetry
8. Methods of osmometry that determines the concentration of osmotically active particles:
a. freezing point depression
b. vapor pressure osmometry
c. membrane osmometry
d. suction pump osmometry
9. This is a device in the automatic transfer of titrant that requires frequent calibration due to continual changes in the physical properties of the tunes utilized:
a. piston burettes
b. peristaltic pumps
c. suction -stroke piston pumps
d. air displacement pumps
10. In this method of analysis , dissolved solids and sugars in tissue specimens can be measured to diagnose pathologic conditions:
a. titrimetry
b. osmometry
c. volumetry
d. gravimetry
ANSWERS
1. Chromatography
2. Resolution
3. Column chromatography
4. Planar chromatography
5. Gas chromatography
6. Liquid chromatography
7. Supercritical fluid chromatography
8. catecholamines
9. sugars
10. drugs
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. B
Additional questions will be posted on Wednesday. /VBG
1. _______________________ This refers to the group of techniques used to separate complex mistures on the basis of their physical interaction with the mobile and stationary phases.
2. ________________________ It is a measure of the degree of separation of solute bands relative to their bandwidths.
3._________________________ Enumerate two techniques by chromatographic bed shape
4._________________________
5._________________________ Enumerate the three physical state techniques of the mobile phase.
6._________________________
7._________________________
8._________________________ Give the three parameters measured in chromatography.
9._________________________
10.________________________
GRAVIMETRY, TITRIMETRY, VOLUMETRY & OSMOMETY
1. This method determines the number of moles of reagent required to react quantitatively with the substance being determined:
a. gravimetry
b. titrimetry
c. osmometry
d. volumetry
2. In this method the the titrant is introduced continuously and can perform without supervision:
a. manual modes of transmission
b. automated modes of transmission
c. automated modes of transmission
d. semi-automated modes of transmission
3. This is a device in automatic transfer of titrant that are highly reliable and do not require calibration.
a. persitaltic pumps
b. piston burettes
c. suction-stroke piston pumps
d. automatic pumps
4. These are the types of titration based on the formation of a complex between the titrant and the analyte.
a. redox titration
b. complexometric titration
c. acid base titration
d. ion titration
5. Method of analysis that has the potential for a precision of up to 0.1 %
a. gravimetry
b. volumetry
c. osmometry
d. nanometry
6. Most common method used in osmometry method of analysis
a. vapor pressure
b. freezing point deression
c. membrane osmometry
d. volumetric presure
7. It is the most accurate macro - quantitative method of anaylsis
a. volumetry
b. gravimetry
c. osmometry
d. titrimetry
8. Methods of osmometry that determines the concentration of osmotically active particles:
a. freezing point depression
b. vapor pressure osmometry
c. membrane osmometry
d. suction pump osmometry
9. This is a device in the automatic transfer of titrant that requires frequent calibration due to continual changes in the physical properties of the tunes utilized:
a. piston burettes
b. peristaltic pumps
c. suction -stroke piston pumps
d. air displacement pumps
10. In this method of analysis , dissolved solids and sugars in tissue specimens can be measured to diagnose pathologic conditions:
a. titrimetry
b. osmometry
c. volumetry
d. gravimetry
ANSWERS
1. Chromatography
2. Resolution
3. Column chromatography
4. Planar chromatography
5. Gas chromatography
6. Liquid chromatography
7. Supercritical fluid chromatography
8. catecholamines
9. sugars
10. drugs
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. B
Additional questions will be posted on Wednesday. /VBG
Labels:
Chromatography,
gravimetry,
osmometry,
titrimetric,
volumetric
Friday, July 18, 2008
QUIZ ON INSTRUMENTATION
The graduated cylinder
1. Visible spectrum in the Electromagnetic Radiation
a. 180 nm
b. 390 nm
c. 800 nm
d. More than 400,000 nm
e. None of the above
2. Measures light emitted by single atoms in a flame
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Flame photometer
c. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer
d. Fluorometer
e. None of the above
3. In Beer-lambert’s law, the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the to the amount of light absorbed or inversely proportional to the to the logarithm of transmitted light.
a. True
b. False
Choices for numbers 4- 8:
a. Exciter lamp
b. Entrance slit
c. monochromator
d. Cuvette
e. Photodetector
f. Exit slit
4. Reduces the stray light and prevents the entry of scattered light
5. Produces light of specific wavelength
6. Provides electromagnetic radiation
7. Holds the solution of which the absorption is to be measured
8. Uses photosensitive material that release electrons when exposed to light energy
9. Type of cuvette used for acidic solutions
a. Soft glass
b. Plastic
c. Borosilicate
d. Quartz
e. Any of the above
10. Most widely used lamp for spectrophotometer
a. Halogen lamp
b. Xenon lamp
c. Mercury lamp
d. Hydrogen lamp
e. All of the above
Given for numbers 11-15:
Calcium determination
Given:
Abs of Unknown: 0.11
Abs of Standard: 0.15
Concentration of Std: 10 mg/dL
wl= 540 nm
N.V. = 2.35-2.75
11. What is the concentration of calcium in mg/dL
12. What is the concentration in mmol/L
13. specific type of light used for plasma Calcium reading
14. Is the obtained value normal?
15. What maybe the reason of abnormal results?
CHOICES FOR NUMBERS 16- 30
Type/s of error committed
A. random error
B. systematic error
C. both
D. none
16. mispipetting
17. expired reagent
18. prolonged incubation
19. mislabelling
20. unstable light source
21. inappropriate separation of serum
22. serum preserved at refrigerated temperatures
23. wet test tubes
24. hemolyzed serum
25. violation of 1(3s)
26. violation of 2(2s)
27. violation of 4(1s)
28. violation of 10X
29. violation of R(4s)
30. inaccurate recording of results
ANSWERS WILL BE POSTED NEXT WEEK. (JULY 30, 2008)
1. Visible spectrum in the Electromagnetic Radiation
a. 180 nm
b. 390 nm
c. 800 nm
d. More than 400,000 nm
e. None of the above
2. Measures light emitted by single atoms in a flame
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Flame photometer
c. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer
d. Fluorometer
e. None of the above
3. In Beer-lambert’s law, the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the to the amount of light absorbed or inversely proportional to the to the logarithm of transmitted light.
a. True
b. False
Choices for numbers 4- 8:
a. Exciter lamp
b. Entrance slit
c. monochromator
d. Cuvette
e. Photodetector
f. Exit slit
4. Reduces the stray light and prevents the entry of scattered light
5. Produces light of specific wavelength
6. Provides electromagnetic radiation
7. Holds the solution of which the absorption is to be measured
8. Uses photosensitive material that release electrons when exposed to light energy
9. Type of cuvette used for acidic solutions
a. Soft glass
b. Plastic
c. Borosilicate
d. Quartz
e. Any of the above
10. Most widely used lamp for spectrophotometer
a. Halogen lamp
b. Xenon lamp
c. Mercury lamp
d. Hydrogen lamp
e. All of the above
Given for numbers 11-15:
Calcium determination
Given:
Abs of Unknown: 0.11
Abs of Standard: 0.15
Concentration of Std: 10 mg/dL
wl= 540 nm
N.V. = 2.35-2.75
11. What is the concentration of calcium in mg/dL
12. What is the concentration in mmol/L
13. specific type of light used for plasma Calcium reading
14. Is the obtained value normal?
15. What maybe the reason of abnormal results?
CHOICES FOR NUMBERS 16- 30
Type/s of error committed
A. random error
B. systematic error
C. both
D. none
16. mispipetting
17. expired reagent
18. prolonged incubation
19. mislabelling
20. unstable light source
21. inappropriate separation of serum
22. serum preserved at refrigerated temperatures
23. wet test tubes
24. hemolyzed serum
25. violation of 1(3s)
26. violation of 2(2s)
27. violation of 4(1s)
28. violation of 10X
29. violation of R(4s)
30. inaccurate recording of results
ANSWERS WILL BE POSTED NEXT WEEK. (JULY 30, 2008)
Friday, May 2, 2008
CASE STUDY
CASE STUDY
A 24 yr-old, female patient was rushed to the emergency room because of unconsciousness. Her skin was cold and damp, her pulse normal and no previous history of any debilitating condition. The results of her laboratory tests were:
WBC count - 6,100/cubic mm
Hemoglobin - 12.5 g/dL
Differential count - normal
Blood Morphology - normal
FBS - 40 mg/dL
TAG - 120 mg/dL
Cholesterol - 150 mg/dL
BUN - 16 mg/dL
Creatinine - 1.2 mg/dL
1. What condition should you primarily suspect?
2. What further tests should be performed?
3. Defend your answers.
A 24 yr-old, female patient was rushed to the emergency room because of unconsciousness. Her skin was cold and damp, her pulse normal and no previous history of any debilitating condition. The results of her laboratory tests were:
WBC count - 6,100/cubic mm
Hemoglobin - 12.5 g/dL
Differential count - normal
Blood Morphology - normal
FBS - 40 mg/dL
TAG - 120 mg/dL
Cholesterol - 150 mg/dL
BUN - 16 mg/dL
Creatinine - 1.2 mg/dL
1. What condition should you primarily suspect?
2. What further tests should be performed?
3. Defend your answers.
Wednesday, April 23, 2008
TRANSCRIPTION
Transcribe the following terms:
1. PPE - Personal Protective Equipment
2. OGTT - Oral Glucose Tolerance Test
3. FBS - Fasting Blood Sugar
4. OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Administration
5. LIS - Laboratory Information System
6. TLA - Total Laboratory Automation
7. NIST - National Institute of Standards and Technology
8. CPK - Creatine Phosphokinase, Creatine Kinase
9. stat - immediately, as soon as possible
10. LDH - Lactate Dehydrogenase
11. OCT - Ornithine Carbamoyl Transferase
12. ALP - Alkaline Phosphatase
13. ACP - Acid Phosphatase
14. RBS - Random Blood Sugar
15. GGT - Glucose Tolerance Test
1. PPE - Personal Protective Equipment
2. OGTT - Oral Glucose Tolerance Test
3. FBS - Fasting Blood Sugar
4. OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Administration
5. LIS - Laboratory Information System
6. TLA - Total Laboratory Automation
7. NIST - National Institute of Standards and Technology
8. CPK - Creatine Phosphokinase, Creatine Kinase
9. stat - immediately, as soon as possible
10. LDH - Lactate Dehydrogenase
11. OCT - Ornithine Carbamoyl Transferase
12. ALP - Alkaline Phosphatase
13. ACP - Acid Phosphatase
14. RBS - Random Blood Sugar
15. GGT - Glucose Tolerance Test
Friday, April 18, 2008
LIPIDS QUIZ
1. This is one food source of Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL):
a. Pork fat
b. Vegetable fat
c. Cod liver oil
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
2. The Lieberman Burchardt method for cholesterol makes use of ____ as a dissociating
agent:
a. Methanol
b. Caffeine
c. Tartrate
d. Picrate
e. None of the above
3. The reference method for cholesterol determination:
a. Abel Kendall
b. Schoenheimer
c. Sperry and Webs
d. Bloor
e. None of the above
a. Pork fat
b. Vegetable fat
c. Cod liver oil
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
2. The Lieberman Burchardt method for cholesterol makes use of ____ as a dissociating
agent:
a. Methanol
b. Caffeine
c. Tartrate
d. Picrate
e. None of the above
3. The reference method for cholesterol determination:
a. Abel Kendall
b. Schoenheimer
c. Sperry and Webs
d. Bloor
e. None of the above
CATECHOLAMINES QUIZ
1. The two major catecholamines are:
a. Adrenaline and noradrenaline
b. T3 and T4
c. TRH and TSH
d. Insulin and glucagon
e. None of the above
2. The following are the effects of increased catecholamine production, EXCEPT:
a. Increase cardiac output
b. Peripheral vasoconstriction
c. Sweating and pallor
d. Increase in blood pressure
e. None of the above
3. One pathologic clinical significance of increased catecholamine is :
a. Pheochromocytoma
b. Grave's disease
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Addison's disease
e. None of the above
4. The BEST sample for catecholamine determination is:
a. unhemolyzed, non icteric and non turbid serum
b. detoxified urine
c. whole blood
d. a & b only
e. b & c only
f. a, b, & c
5. The following are physiologic factors affecting catecholamines, EXCEPT:
a. Emotional stress
b. Pain
c. Loud noise
d. Mental stress
e. None of the above
6. The following are end products of catecholamine metabolism, EXCEPT;
a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. HVA
e. All of the above
f. a & b
g. a, b, & c
7. The following are steroid hormones, EXCEPT;
a. Testosterone
b. Cortisol
c. Aldosterone
d. Catecholamines
e. None of the above
8. The secretion/production of catecholamines is greatest in what part of the day?
a. In the night
b. In the morning
c. The same all throughout the day
d. At noon
e. None of the above
9. The following are conditions that increase catecholamine concentrations, EXCEPT;
a. Neuroblastoma
b. Essential hypertension
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Pheochromocytoma
e. None of the above
10. Catecholamine concentrations are decreased in:
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Septicemia
c. Depression
d. Diabetic acidosis
e. Burns
a. Adrenaline and noradrenaline
b. T3 and T4
c. TRH and TSH
d. Insulin and glucagon
e. None of the above
2. The following are the effects of increased catecholamine production, EXCEPT:
a. Increase cardiac output
b. Peripheral vasoconstriction
c. Sweating and pallor
d. Increase in blood pressure
e. None of the above
3. One pathologic clinical significance of increased catecholamine is :
a. Pheochromocytoma
b. Grave's disease
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Addison's disease
e. None of the above
4. The BEST sample for catecholamine determination is:
a. unhemolyzed, non icteric and non turbid serum
b. detoxified urine
c. whole blood
d. a & b only
e. b & c only
f. a, b, & c
5. The following are physiologic factors affecting catecholamines, EXCEPT:
a. Emotional stress
b. Pain
c. Loud noise
d. Mental stress
e. None of the above
6. The following are end products of catecholamine metabolism, EXCEPT;
a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. HVA
e. All of the above
f. a & b
g. a, b, & c
7. The following are steroid hormones, EXCEPT;
a. Testosterone
b. Cortisol
c. Aldosterone
d. Catecholamines
e. None of the above
8. The secretion/production of catecholamines is greatest in what part of the day?
a. In the night
b. In the morning
c. The same all throughout the day
d. At noon
e. None of the above
9. The following are conditions that increase catecholamine concentrations, EXCEPT;
a. Neuroblastoma
b. Essential hypertension
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Pheochromocytoma
e. None of the above
10. Catecholamine concentrations are decreased in:
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Septicemia
c. Depression
d. Diabetic acidosis
e. Burns
TOXICOLOGY QUIZ
1. These are major routes of drug administration, EXCEPT:
a. Oral
b. Intravenous
c. Intramuscular
d. Rectal
e. None of the abovr
2. This is the major carrier protein of drugs in the circulation:
a. Globulin
b. Albumin
c. TBPA
d. Ferritin
e. None of the above
3. The therapeutic range of a drug is the blood level of the drug that;
a. Cures the disease
b. Gives no side effects
c. Determines the extent of the condition
d. Allows maximum exposure of the patient to the drug
e. None of the above
4. The following are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT:
a. Digoxin
b. Procainamide
c. Quinidine
d. Theohpylline
e. None of the above
5. Trinder’s reagent is for the quantitation of:
a. Acetaminophen
b. Phenobarbital
c. Salicylate
d. Theophylline
e. None of the above
6. The drug dosage given to patients with this condition should be lower than the
therapeutic range:
a. Liver cirrhosis
b. Pneumonia
c. Septicemia
d. Viral influenza
e. None of the above
7. Isopropyl alcohol should NOT be used as a sterilizing agent for ethanol analysis,
because:
a. It may falsely increase obtained values
b. It may falsely decrease obtained values
c. It interferes with the reaction
d. It reacts with the reagents for the determination
e. None of the above
8. The product measured in alcohol determination is:
a. acetylsalicylate
b. LDH
c. NAD+
d. NADH
e. acetaldehyde
9. The major metabolite of marijuana is:
a. heroine
b. benzoylecgonine
c. 9 delta THC
d. phencyclidine
10. The major metabolite of morphine is:
Select from the above choices
a. Oral
b. Intravenous
c. Intramuscular
d. Rectal
e. None of the abovr
2. This is the major carrier protein of drugs in the circulation:
a. Globulin
b. Albumin
c. TBPA
d. Ferritin
e. None of the above
3. The therapeutic range of a drug is the blood level of the drug that;
a. Cures the disease
b. Gives no side effects
c. Determines the extent of the condition
d. Allows maximum exposure of the patient to the drug
e. None of the above
4. The following are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT:
a. Digoxin
b. Procainamide
c. Quinidine
d. Theohpylline
e. None of the above
5. Trinder’s reagent is for the quantitation of:
a. Acetaminophen
b. Phenobarbital
c. Salicylate
d. Theophylline
e. None of the above
6. The drug dosage given to patients with this condition should be lower than the
therapeutic range:
a. Liver cirrhosis
b. Pneumonia
c. Septicemia
d. Viral influenza
e. None of the above
7. Isopropyl alcohol should NOT be used as a sterilizing agent for ethanol analysis,
because:
a. It may falsely increase obtained values
b. It may falsely decrease obtained values
c. It interferes with the reaction
d. It reacts with the reagents for the determination
e. None of the above
8. The product measured in alcohol determination is:
a. acetylsalicylate
b. LDH
c. NAD+
d. NADH
e. acetaldehyde
9. The major metabolite of marijuana is:
a. heroine
b. benzoylecgonine
c. 9 delta THC
d. phencyclidine
10. The major metabolite of morphine is:
Select from the above choices
ENDOCRINOLOGY QUIZ
1. The posterior pituitary produces these hormones:
a. Oxytocin
b. Epinephrine
c. PTH
d. TSH
2. Hormones are said to be biochemically active when they are:
a. Free
b. Bound to target receptors
c. Bound to albumin
d. Bound to TBG
e. None of the above
3. The glucocorticoid hormones regulates the following processes, EXCEPT:
a. Glucose production
b. Protein metabolism
c. Amino acid formation
d. Fatty acid release
e. None of the above
4. The reabsorption of sodium by the kidney is enhanced by this hormone:
a. aldosterone
b. cortisol
c. estrogen
d. progesterone
e. None of the above
5.The major ovarian hormone is:
a. epistriol
b. estrone
c. estradiol
e. estriol
a. Oxytocin
b. Epinephrine
c. PTH
d. TSH
2. Hormones are said to be biochemically active when they are:
a. Free
b. Bound to target receptors
c. Bound to albumin
d. Bound to TBG
e. None of the above
3. The glucocorticoid hormones regulates the following processes, EXCEPT:
a. Glucose production
b. Protein metabolism
c. Amino acid formation
d. Fatty acid release
e. None of the above
4. The reabsorption of sodium by the kidney is enhanced by this hormone:
a. aldosterone
b. cortisol
c. estrogen
d. progesterone
e. None of the above
5.The major ovarian hormone is:
a. epistriol
b. estrone
c. estradiol
e. estriol
BLOOD GAS AND TOXICOLOGY QUIZ
I. PROBLEM SOLVING:
A. WRITE THE FORMULA.
B. SHOW YOUR COMPUTATIONS
C. ENCLOSE ALL ANSWERS IN BOXES.
1.WHAT IS THE DISSOLVED CARBON DIOXIDE IF THE CARBONIC ACID IS 1.35 mMOL/L?
2.WHAT IS THE DISSOLVED CARBON DIOXIDE IF THE pCO2 IS 30 mmHg?
II. ESSAY: DISCUSS BRIEFLY BUT CONCISELY:
1. DISCUSS THE PORTER SILBER METHOD.
2 DISCUSS THE DIALYSIS METHOD OF TOTAL T4 PROCEDURE.
3. HOW IS THE CHAIN OF CONFIDENTIALITY MAINTAINED IN DRUG ABUSE SCREENING.
A. WRITE THE FORMULA.
B. SHOW YOUR COMPUTATIONS
C. ENCLOSE ALL ANSWERS IN BOXES.
1.WHAT IS THE DISSOLVED CARBON DIOXIDE IF THE CARBONIC ACID IS 1.35 mMOL/L?
2.WHAT IS THE DISSOLVED CARBON DIOXIDE IF THE pCO2 IS 30 mmHg?
II. ESSAY: DISCUSS BRIEFLY BUT CONCISELY:
1. DISCUSS THE PORTER SILBER METHOD.
2 DISCUSS THE DIALYSIS METHOD OF TOTAL T4 PROCEDURE.
3. HOW IS THE CHAIN OF CONFIDENTIALITY MAINTAINED IN DRUG ABUSE SCREENING.
INSTRUMENTATION QUIZ
1. It is migration of charged solutes or particles in an electric field.
2. Refers to the migration of small ions, whereas zone electrophoresis is the migration of charged macromolecules in a porous support medium such as paper, cellulose acetate, or agarose gel film.
3. It is the result of zone electrophoresis and consists of sharply separated zones of a macromolecule (i.e Proteins in Serum, urine, cerebrospinal fluid, and other biologic body fluids and erythrocytes and tissues are the macromolecules of interest in a clinical laboratory)
4. Refers to the migration of charged macromolecules in a porous support medium
5. Earliest medium used; fragile and could easily be damaged; staining were variable due to the different composition of paper
6. Larger samples could be used because of the thick slab created; fragile and perishable
7. A strip composed of a clear plastic backing with a coating of cellulose acetate; size structure of particles can be controlled; can make permanent records; greater resolution and faster separation; when dried materials becomes extremely brittle
8. Derivative of agar; electrically neutral thus no interaction with the sample; relatively porous making separation solely on electric charge; staining and de-staining can be easily done with dilute acetic acid
9. Utlizes protein size as a major factor in the separation process, produces more detailed patterns; highly complex in its preparation
10. Substances being tested in electrophoresis
EMISSION FLAME PHOTOMETRY
1. Method for detection of metal salts, principally Na, K, Li, Ca, Ba.
2. The process incorporated here is atomization or nebulization
3. Most employed burner in flame photometry
4. Measures the intensity of the emitted light
5. Tested substance in flame photometry
6-10 Give five sources of errors
FLUOROMETRY
1. & 2. Give the two most frequently used sources of excitation radiant energy
3. Lamps that are seldom used because they release little energy in the ultraviolet region.
4. Placed between the radiation source and the sample, selects the wavelength that is best absorbed by the solution to be measured
5. Physical energy that occurs when certain compounds absorb EMR
6. Transcribe EMR
7. Use grafting, prisms, or filters for isolation of incident radiation
8. & 9. Two types of fluorescent spectrum
10. Involves the interaction of light with a chemical compound
SPECTROPHOTOMETER
1. A photometer that can measure intensity as a function of the color, or more specifically, the wavelength of light
2. Used to set the display to a 0%T readout when sample compartment is empty and the adopter cover is closed.
3. Selects the desired analytical wavelength
4. Sets the display to 100%T when a cuvet containing a blank reference solution is inserted in the sample compartment
5. Displays the wavelength and the data readings.
6. This mode selects the transmittance, absorbance, concentration, or factor mode
7. Relationship between absorption of light by a solution and the concentration of that solution has been described by ____________
8. Converts transmitted radiant energy into an equivalent amount of electrical energy.
9. Refers to the wavelength outside the band transmitted by the monochromator
10. type of absorption that spectrophotometer use to measure concentration by detecting absorption of electromagnetic radiation by atoms rather than by molecules.
TURBIDIMETRY AND NEPHELOMETRY
1. Measures the amount of light blocked by particulate matter as light passes through the cuvette
2. Transcribe LASER.
3. Used to quantitatE antigen by analyzing increase in turbidity, as measured by increasing scatter of laser light
4. Obtains uniform scattering of particles and minimizes sample heating.
5. Substance being tested in nephelometry.
2. Refers to the migration of small ions, whereas zone electrophoresis is the migration of charged macromolecules in a porous support medium such as paper, cellulose acetate, or agarose gel film.
3. It is the result of zone electrophoresis and consists of sharply separated zones of a macromolecule (i.e Proteins in Serum, urine, cerebrospinal fluid, and other biologic body fluids and erythrocytes and tissues are the macromolecules of interest in a clinical laboratory)
4. Refers to the migration of charged macromolecules in a porous support medium
5. Earliest medium used; fragile and could easily be damaged; staining were variable due to the different composition of paper
6. Larger samples could be used because of the thick slab created; fragile and perishable
7. A strip composed of a clear plastic backing with a coating of cellulose acetate; size structure of particles can be controlled; can make permanent records; greater resolution and faster separation; when dried materials becomes extremely brittle
8. Derivative of agar; electrically neutral thus no interaction with the sample; relatively porous making separation solely on electric charge; staining and de-staining can be easily done with dilute acetic acid
9. Utlizes protein size as a major factor in the separation process, produces more detailed patterns; highly complex in its preparation
10. Substances being tested in electrophoresis
EMISSION FLAME PHOTOMETRY
1. Method for detection of metal salts, principally Na, K, Li, Ca, Ba.
2. The process incorporated here is atomization or nebulization
3. Most employed burner in flame photometry
4. Measures the intensity of the emitted light
5. Tested substance in flame photometry
6-10 Give five sources of errors
FLUOROMETRY
1. & 2. Give the two most frequently used sources of excitation radiant energy
3. Lamps that are seldom used because they release little energy in the ultraviolet region.
4. Placed between the radiation source and the sample, selects the wavelength that is best absorbed by the solution to be measured
5. Physical energy that occurs when certain compounds absorb EMR
6. Transcribe EMR
7. Use grafting, prisms, or filters for isolation of incident radiation
8. & 9. Two types of fluorescent spectrum
10. Involves the interaction of light with a chemical compound
SPECTROPHOTOMETER
1. A photometer that can measure intensity as a function of the color, or more specifically, the wavelength of light
2. Used to set the display to a 0%T readout when sample compartment is empty and the adopter cover is closed.
3. Selects the desired analytical wavelength
4. Sets the display to 100%T when a cuvet containing a blank reference solution is inserted in the sample compartment
5. Displays the wavelength and the data readings.
6. This mode selects the transmittance, absorbance, concentration, or factor mode
7. Relationship between absorption of light by a solution and the concentration of that solution has been described by ____________
8. Converts transmitted radiant energy into an equivalent amount of electrical energy.
9. Refers to the wavelength outside the band transmitted by the monochromator
10. type of absorption that spectrophotometer use to measure concentration by detecting absorption of electromagnetic radiation by atoms rather than by molecules.
TURBIDIMETRY AND NEPHELOMETRY
1. Measures the amount of light blocked by particulate matter as light passes through the cuvette
2. Transcribe LASER.
3. Used to quantitatE antigen by analyzing increase in turbidity, as measured by increasing scatter of laser light
4. Obtains uniform scattering of particles and minimizes sample heating.
5. Substance being tested in nephelometry.
Clinical Enzymology Quiz
I. ANSWER AS INDICATED. (No acronyms –transcribe answers)
1._______________________________________ Two examples of hydrolases
2._______________________________________
3._______________________________________ Two examples of transferases
4._______________________________________
5._______________________________________ It is the constant value for a specific enzyme substrate concentration under specified conditions.
6._______________________________________ When the substrate is in excess , this acts as the rate limiting factor.
7._______________________________________ When the enzyme is in excess , this acts as the rate limiting factor.
8._______________________________________ This CK isoenzyme is more specific for the heart.
9._______________________________________ This CK isoenzyme is more specific for the brain.
10._______________________________________ How many isoenzymes does CK have?
11._______________________________________What are the two subunits of CK?
12._______________________________________ What is the optimum pH for enzymatic reaction?
13._______________________________________ What is the optimum temperature for enzymatic reaction?
14._______________________________________ What is the type of inhibitor that competes with the substrates at the binding sites of the enzyme?
15._______________________________________ Give one example of a metallic activator.
16._______________________________________ It is a condition in enzyme assays in which the substrate is 99 X more than expected enzyme concentration.
17._______________________________________ It is half of the maximum velocity.
18._______________________________________ What are the isoenzymes of CK?
19._______________________________________ Transcribe CK.
20._______________________________________ One method for CK determination.
II. ESSAY: ( 5 pts.)
1 Explain the electrophoretic mobility of the CK isoenzymes.
1._______________________________________ Two examples of hydrolases
2._______________________________________
3._______________________________________ Two examples of transferases
4._______________________________________
5._______________________________________ It is the constant value for a specific enzyme substrate concentration under specified conditions.
6._______________________________________ When the substrate is in excess , this acts as the rate limiting factor.
7._______________________________________ When the enzyme is in excess , this acts as the rate limiting factor.
8._______________________________________ This CK isoenzyme is more specific for the heart.
9._______________________________________ This CK isoenzyme is more specific for the brain.
10._______________________________________ How many isoenzymes does CK have?
11._______________________________________What are the two subunits of CK?
12._______________________________________ What is the optimum pH for enzymatic reaction?
13._______________________________________ What is the optimum temperature for enzymatic reaction?
14._______________________________________ What is the type of inhibitor that competes with the substrates at the binding sites of the enzyme?
15._______________________________________ Give one example of a metallic activator.
16._______________________________________ It is a condition in enzyme assays in which the substrate is 99 X more than expected enzyme concentration.
17._______________________________________ It is half of the maximum velocity.
18._______________________________________ What are the isoenzymes of CK?
19._______________________________________ Transcribe CK.
20._______________________________________ One method for CK determination.
II. ESSAY: ( 5 pts.)
1 Explain the electrophoretic mobility of the CK isoenzymes.
Sunday, April 13, 2008
ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS
ANSWER TO ENDOCRINOLOGY QUESTIONS
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. A
ANSWERS TO TOXICOLOGY QUESTIONS
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. A
ANSWERS TO CATECHOLAMINES QUESTIONS
1. A
2. E
3. A
4. D
5. E
6. D
7. D
8. B
9. C
10. B
ANSWERS TO LIPID QUESTIONS
1. A
2. B
3. B
ANSWERS TO CARBOHYDRATES QUESTIONS
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. A
ANSWERS TO INSTRUMENTATION QUESTIONS
1. G
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. A
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. A
ANSWERS TO TOXICOLOGY QUESTIONS
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. A
ANSWERS TO CATECHOLAMINES QUESTIONS
1. A
2. E
3. A
4. D
5. E
6. D
7. D
8. B
9. C
10. B
ANSWERS TO LIPID QUESTIONS
1. A
2. B
3. B
ANSWERS TO CARBOHYDRATES QUESTIONS
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. A
ANSWERS TO INSTRUMENTATION QUESTIONS
1. G
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. A
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